This set of Software Project Management MCQ covers advanced concepts of Software Project Management, including COCOMO cost drivers, PERT estimation, Earned Value Management (EVM), risk exposure, Agile velocity, CMMI maturity levels, software metrics, and project scheduling models. Useful for GATE, UGC NET, IBPS IT Officer, and university semester examinations.
Topic: Software Engineering (Software Project Management) | Set: 2
Difficulty: Medium to Hard | Total Questions: 15
Software Project Management MCQs
Q1. In the intermediate COCOMO model, what are the multipliers used to adjust nominal effort based on project attributes called?
A. Function Points Multipliers
B. Scale Factors
C. Cost Drivers
D. Risk Indicators
View Answer & Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: Cost drivers evaluate factors such as personnel capability, hardware constraints, and software reliability requirements to refine effort estimation.
Q2. If a software task has an optimistic time (O = 2 days), a most likely time (M = 5 days), and a pessimistic time (P = 14 days), what is its expected duration using the PERT formula?
A. 7 days
B. 6 days
C. 5 days
D. 6.5 days
View Answer & Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: Using the PERT formula: Te = (O + 4M + P) / 6 = (2 + 20 + 14) / 6 = 6 days.
Q3. How is Risk Exposure (RE) mathematically quantified?
A. Probability + Impact
B. Probability × Impact
C. Mitigation Cost / Probability
D. Impact – Delay Cost
View Answer & Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: Risk exposure is calculated by multiplying the probability of occurrence with the potential impact amount.
Q4. If a project’s Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is 0.85, what does it indicate?
A. Project is under budget
B. Project is progressing at only 85% of planned schedule speed
C. Project completed 85% scope
D. Team velocity increased by 15%
View Answer & Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: An SPI less than 1 indicates the project is behind schedule and delivering less value than planned.
Q5. When computing unadjusted function points, which is classified as an internal data function?
A. External Input (EI)
B. Internal Logical File (ILF)
C. External Inquiry (EQ)
D. External Interface File (EIF)
View Answer & Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: Internal Logical Files represent logically related data maintained within the application boundary.
Q6. In CMMI, at which maturity level are processes formally standardized across the organization?
A. Level 2 (Managed)
B. Level 3 (Defined)
C. Level 4 (Quantitatively Managed)
D. Level 5 (Optimizing)
View Answer & Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: Level 3 focuses on organization-wide standardization and documented process definitions.
Q7. Which estimation technique uses anonymous expert brainstorming rounds to reach project consensus?
A. Wideband Delphi Technique
B. Algorithmic Cost Modeling
C. Bottom-Up Estimation
D. WBS Rollup
View Answer & Explanation
Answer: A
Explanation: Wideband Delphi avoids bias by collecting anonymous expert estimates iteratively until consensus is achieved.
Q8. A project has Earned Value (EV) = $40,000 and Actual Cost (AC) = $50,000. What is the CPI?
A. 1.25
B. 0.80
C. -$10,000
D. 0.90
View Answer & Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: CPI = EV / AC = 40,000 / 50,000 = 0.80, showing cost inefficiency.
Q9. Which curve models staffing levels over a software project lifecycle?
A. Pareto Curve
B. Fibonacci Curve
C. Rayleigh Curve
D. Gaussian Curve
View Answer & Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: The Rayleigh curve models staffing growth, peak development effort, and gradual decline.
Q10. What is the primary purpose of the Change Control Board (CCB)?
A. Improve old code performance
B. Evaluate and approve changes to project baselines
C. Hire development staff
D. Automate CI/CD pipelines
View Answer & Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: The CCB ensures all project changes are analyzed before affecting cost, scope, or schedule.
Q11. Which project team structure features decentralized decision-making and high collaboration?
A. Chief-Programmer Team
B. Controlled Decentralized Team
C. Democratic Team Structure
D. Bureaucratic Hierarchical Structure
View Answer & Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation: Democratic teams emphasize group ownership, open communication, and collaborative decisions.
Q12. How is “Defect Density” typically measured?
A. Bugs divided by testers
B. Defects per KLOC
C. Bug fixing time
D. High severity bug ratio
View Answer & Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: Defect density measures the number of defects relative to software size, commonly defects per KLOC.
Q13. Purchasing software insurance to cover breach damage is an example of:
A. Risk Avoidance
B. Risk Mitigation
C. Risk Acceptance
D. Risk Transfer
View Answer & Explanation
Answer: D
Explanation: Risk transfer shifts the financial impact to a third-party organization such as an insurer.
Q14. What is Agile Velocity?
A. CI/CD execution speed
B. Average story points completed per sprint
C. Lines of code per developer
D. Budget depletion rate
View Answer & Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: Agile velocity measures the amount of work completed and accepted during a sprint iteration.
Q15. Which software metric category focuses on development methods and process efficiency?
A. Product Metrics
B. Process Metrics
C. Architectural Metrics
D. Structural Metrics
View Answer & Explanation
Answer: B
Explanation: Process metrics evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the software development lifecycle.
Conclusion
These Software Project Management MCQ questions covered important advanced topics such as COCOMO cost drivers, PERT estimation, CMMI, Agile velocity, Earned Value Management, software metrics, and risk management strategies.
Practicing these concepts regularly is highly beneficial for GATE CS, UGC NET, IBPS IT Officer, software engineering interviews, and university semester examinations.
For better understanding of theories and concepts, please refer Software Project Management Concepts.